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Pass4side SNIA S10-101 Exam overview
SNIA S10-101 Exam publish by Pass4side
VUE/Prometric Code:S10-101
Exam Name:SNIA S10-101 Exam
Questions and Answers:154 Q&As
Updated:2008-12-05

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1. What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C. Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Answer: C

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Pass4side RedHat RH-302 Exam
RedHat RH-302 Exam publish by Pass4side
VUE/Prometric Code:RH-302
Exam Name:RedHat RH-302 Exam
Questions and Answers:330 Q&As
Updated:2008-12-11

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8. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the
quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small
group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire
system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on
corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems.
Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem.
Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is
also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only
had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill
up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/),

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Pass4side RedHat RH-302 Exam
RedHat RH-302 Exam publish by Pass4side
VUE/Prometric Code:RH-302
Exam Name:RedHat RH-302 Exam
Questions and Answers:330 Q&As
Updated:2008-12-11

5. Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the
shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and
stop the iptables service.
6. neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70

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Pass4side RedHat RH-302 Exam
RedHat RH-302 Exam publish by Pass4side
VUE/Prometric Code:RH-302
Exam Name:RedHat RH-302 Exam
Questions and Answers:330 Q&As
Updated:2008-12-11

1. Change the root Password to redtophat
Answer and Explanation:
1. Boot the system in Single user mode
2. Use the passwd command
2. Dig Server1.example.com, Resolve to successfully through DNS Where DNS server is
172.24.254.254
Answer and Explanation:
#vi /etc/resolv.conf
nameserver 172.24.254.254
#dig server1.example.com
#host server1.example.com
DNS is the Domain Name System, which maintains a database that can help your computer translate
domain names such as www.Redhat.com to IP addresses such as 216.148.218.197. As no individual
DNS server is large enough to keep a database for the entire Internet, they can refer requests to other
DNS servers.

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1. How many static routes can the Matrix C1 support?

A. 250

B. 500

C. 1,000

D. 2,000

Answer: C

 

2. Which IP Address Class is reserved for Multicast?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

E. Class E

Answer: D

 

3. Which IP address will trigger Remote IP Address Discovery?

A. 10.1.1.1

B. 172.16.0.1

C. 255.255.255.255

D. 0.0.0.0

Answer: D

 

4. The Data Link layer of the OSI model defines which sub-layers?

A. LLC

B. MAC

C. CSMA

D. none of the above

E. both A & B

Answer: E

 

5. Which information does a bridge use to build its SAT?

A. the source’s logical address

B. the source’s physical address

C. the destination’s logical address

D. the destination’s physical address

Answer: B

 

6. What version of management does the Matrix-E1 support?

A. SNMP-v4

B. IGMP

C. SNMP-v3

D. Level 2

Answer: C

 

7. Which groups of RMON does the Matrix C2 support?

A. the C2 supports 4 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3 and 9)

B. the C2 supports 4 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3 and 4)

C. the C2 supports 5 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3, 4 and 9)

D. the C2 supports all 9 groups of RMON

Answer: A

 

8. What is the first factor considered in the election of a Designated Bridge by 802.1D compliant bridges using the Spanning Tree Algorithm?

A. the port ID number

B. the path cost to Root

C. the bridge MAC address

D. the bridge priority number

Answer: B

 

9. What is the default VLAN assignment method for Enterasys 802.1Q switches?

A. MAC

B. Port

C. Protocol type

D. DSAP or SSAP values

Answer: B

 

10. What is the command to disable Spanning Tree on Fast Ethernet port #11 in a platinum DFE module in slot #1?

A. Matrix (rw)-> set spantree portstatus fe.1.11 disable

B. Matrix (rw)-> set spantree systemadmin fe.1.11 disable

C. Matrix (rw)-> set spantree systemstatus fe.1.11 disable

D. Matrix (rw)-> set spantree portadmin fe.1.11 disable

Answer: D

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1. While upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, you see “Unable to Copy File” error messages on the screen. After the upgrade is complete, you can’t boot the operating system. Which are the most probable causes of this problem? (Choose 2.)
A.Files in the C:\Nwserver directory were flagged Read-Only.
B.An obsolete support pack was installed on the NetWare 5.1 server.
C.The .HAM storage driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
D.The server’s BIOS needs to be updated to the latest firmware version.
E.The .CDM hard disk device driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
Answer: AD

2. Your organization has three eDirectory trees; one for each functional group in your organization. One tree runs on NetWare 5.1 servers; the others run on NetWare 6.0 servers. You’ve just installed a high-end OES NetWare server and want to consolidate all the servers in the disparate trees to the new server using the Novell NetWare Server Consolidation Utility. Can this be done?
A.Yes, the network meets the prerequisite requirements.
B.No, the Server Consolidation Utility can’t consolidate servers residing in different trees.
C.No, NetWare 6.0 servers can’t be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server Consolidation Utility.
D.No, NetWare 5.1 servers can’t be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server Consolidation Utility.
E.No, you can’t consolidate servers of mixed versions to an OES NetWare server using the Server Consolidation Utility.
Answer: A

3. Which commands are used to start and stop the Public Instance of Tomcat on an OES NetWare server? (Choose 2.)
A.tcstop.ncf
B.tomcat4.ncf
C.tc4stop.ncf
D.tcstart.ncf
E.tc4start.ncf
F.tomcat4stop.ncf
Answer: BC
4. When performing a Default Installation of OES NetWare, which parameters are configured automatically by the installation grogram? (Choose 2.)
A.Codepage 437
B.VGA video mode
C.4 GB SYS volume
D.4 GB DATA volume
E.Basic NetWare File Server patterned deployment
Answer: AC

6. Which utility is used to verify that each server has the cryptographic keys necessary to securely communicate with the other servers in the tree?
A.SECURE.NLM
B.CONFIG.NLM
C.SDIDIAG.NLM
D.MONITOR.NLM
E.PKICHECK.NLM
F.SDINOTES.NLM
G.SECUREDIAG.NLM
Answer: C

7. A.UNLOAD BLNK
B.DSTRACE -BLNK
C.DSTRACE BLNK OFF
D.DSTRACE BLNK STOP
E.DSTRACE BLNK OFF STAY RESIDENT
Answer: B

8. What is the value of the last byte of a computer’s NetBIOS name if the system functions as a workstation?
A.00
B.20
C.1C
D.Null
Answer: A

9. Which OES NetWare component enables script-based management of the network?
A.NXBit Support
B.bash Shell Support
C.ZENworks Management Daemon
D.Common Information Model Support
Answer: B

10. Which OES NetWare component automates the download and installation of NetWare updates?
A.VIM Support
B.bash Support
C.NXBit Support
D.ZENworks Red Carpet Daemon
E.Common Information Model Support
Answer: D

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1. When you try to start the Database Control by using the emctl start

dbconsole command the following error is displayed:
TZ set to America/New_york
OC4J Configuration issue.

/u01/app/oracle/product/10.1.0/db_1/oc4j/j2ee/OC4J_DBConsole_orcl.us.oracl

e.com not found.
Which two environment variables do you need to set appropriately to avoid

such errors, and start the Database Control successfully? (Choose two.)
A. NLS_LANG
B. ORACLE_SID
C. ORACLE_HOME
D. ORACLE_BASE
E. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
Answer: BC

2. The UNDO_RETENTION parameter in your database is set to 1000 and undo

retention is not guaranteed. Which statement regarding retention of undo

data is correct?
A. Undo data becomes obsolete after 1,000 seconds.
B. Undo data gets refreshed after every 1,000 seconds.
C. Undo data will be stored permanently after 1,000 seconds.
D. Committed undo data would be retained for 1,000 seconds if free undo

space is available.
E. Undo data will be retained in the UNDO tablespace for 1,000 seconds,

then it gets moved to the TEMPORARY tablespace to provide read

consistency.
Answer: D

3. You want the size of the tablespace to increase when it is full. Which

option would you use?
A. use automatic extent allocation
B. disable threshold for the tablespace
C. use freelists to manage the free space
D. use automatic segment space management
E. create the tablespace as a bigfile tablespace
F. use the RESIZE clause while creating the tablespace
G. enable AUTOEXTEND for at least one of the data files in the tablespace
Answer: G

4. You want to administer your PROD database from a remote host machine

using a Web-enabled interface. Which Oracle tool would you use to

accomplish this task efficiently without using command-line interfaces?
A. SQL*Plus
B. iSQL*Plus
C. Management Server
D. Management Repository
E. Oracle Enterprise Manager 10g Database Control
Answer: E

5. The database is open. A media failure has occurred, resulting in loss

of all the control files in your database. Which statement regarding the

database instance is true in this scenario?
A. The instance would hang.
B. The instance needs to be shut down.
C. The instance would be in the open state.
D. The instance would abort in such cases.
E. The instance would be in the open and invalid state.
F. The instance would be in the open state, but all the background

processes will be restarted.
Answer: D

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6. Which user-managed backup performed on your database can be labeled as consistent?
A.a backup performed when the database is open
B.a backup performed on a tablespace after putting the tablespace into backup mode
C.a backup performed when the database is closed by using the SHUTDOWN ABORT command
D.a backup performed when all data files and control files are checkpointed with respect to the same system change number (SCN)
Answer: D

7. You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in NOARCHIVELOG mode. The database has 10 tablespaces out of which two are read only. As a DBA, you know that database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy containing a weekly closed database backup.
Which files can you exclude from the weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control files
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.tnsnames.ora file
D.data files associated with read-only tablespaces
E.data files associated with read/write tablespaces
Answer: BCD

8. You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in ARCHIVELOG mode. As a DBA, you know that database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy containing a weekly closed database backup. The local naming method is used by clients to connect to the database.
Which files should you include in this weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control file
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.archived log files
D.tnsnames.ora file
E.listener configuration file
Answer: AC

9. Because your business requirements do not permit you to shut down the database to perform backups, you decide to perform online backups. You use the ALTER TABLESPACE .. BEGIN BACKUP command to perform the backups. The command returns the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01123: cannot start online backup; media recovery not enabled
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The database is in the MOUNT state.
B.The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
C.The command was executed on the SYSTEM tablespace.
D.The command was executed on a temporary tablespace.
E.The command was executed on a read-only tablespace.
Answer: B

10. You plan to perform a backup of the control file in your database. Which two statements regarding the control file backup are true? (Choose two.)
A.You can back up the control file to a binary file.
B.You must bring the database to the NOMOUNT state to perform the control file backup.
C.You must store all types of control file backups in the location defined by USER_DUMP_DEST.
D.You can back up the control file by generating a script that can be used to re-create the control file.
Answer: AD

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1. While starting up the database on a Monday morning, you get the following error after the database is mounted:
ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 9 - see DBWR trace file
ORA-01110: data file 9: ‘/u01/oracle/app/oradata/orcl/users01.dbf’
While investigating, you realize that a backup of the data file (users01.dbf) exists. Which data dictionary view would you use to locate the archived redo log files that are required for recovery?
A.V$ARCHIVED_LOG
B.V$RECOVERY_LOG
C.V$RECOVER_FILE
D.V$RECOVERY_STATUS
Answer: B

2. You are using Recovery Manager (RMAN) to maintain daily backups of your database, which is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. In which two scenarios would you perform an incomplete database recovery using UNTIL TIME from the backups that you maintain using RMAN? (Choose two.)
A.when a table is dropped
B.when a table is truncated
C.when the SYSTEM tablespace is corrupted
D.when the data block in a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
E.when a data file that belongs to a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
Answer: AB

3. SQL*Loader is a utility that can perform which two tasks? (Choose two.)
A.load data from a disk, tape, or named pipes
B.load data into an Oracle database using DML statements
C.extract, reorganize, and insert data within an Oracle database
D.load data from external files into tables in an Oracle database
E.load data into an Oracle database using operating system commands
F.load data directly from a non-Oracle database to an Oracle database
Answer: AD

4. Which option must you specify in the sqlnet.ora file on the client machines to enable clients to use the host naming method?
A.names.addresses
B.names.default_domain
C.names.directory_path
D.names.preferred_servers
E.sqlnet.authentication_services
Answer: C

5. Which three features are provided by Oracle Net Services? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.user authentication
C.transparent data conversion
D.configuration and administration mechanisms
E.support for multiple network transport protocols
Answer: CDE

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6.A NetWorker server manages two tape drives. Server parallelism is set to 16. All save sets are directed to the Default pool.
During a group backup, 24 client save sets are backed up. If both device resources have a Target sessions value of 6 and a Max sessions value of 8, what happens when the backup starts?
A.12 save streams are directed to each device
B.6 save streams are directed to each device and the remaining save sets wait until another save session finishes
C.8 save streams are directed to each device and the remaining save sets wait until another save session finishes
D.6 save sets are directed to each drive and the remaining save sets are directed to the device having the lowest number of accesses

ANSWER : C

7.In NetWorker, what happens when you try to clone from a tape volume on which a write operation is currently being performed?
A.Cloning aborts with the error “source volume in use”
B.Write operation is aborted and cloning begins
C.Cloning begins when the current write operation finishes
D.Cloning begins while the write operation continues

ANSWER : C

8.A NetWorker client uses the Default schedule. The client needs to be restored to how it existed after last Tuesday’s backup.
How many save sets need to be recovered?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

ANSWER : C
9.Which action should you take in a NAS backup-to-disk environment to ensure recoverability in the event of a backup server failure?
A.Stage the backup media
B.Cluster the backup server
C.Backup the backup server
D.Save the backup catalog to the NAS target

ANSWER : D

10.You are configuring two LUNs with 50GB each in a CX300. They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single NetWorker storage node.
Which license is needed?
A.Disk Backup Option
B.Shared LUN Option
C.Dynamic Device Sharing
D.Multiple LUN Option

ANSWER : A

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1. A virtual tape library has Auto Archive configured using the Move option with a grace period of 10 days.
What happens once the grace period expires?
A.Virtual tape is moved to the Virtual Vault
B.Data inside the virtual tape is deleted and the virtual tape can be re-used
C.Virtual tape is removed from the disk library
D.Data inside the virtual tape is moved to a physical tape

ANSWER : C

2.A Windows administrator on hostA needs to administer NetWorker server serverA. The administrator will use Internet Explorer to connect to the Console server serverB and log in to the administrator account.
Which entry needs to be in the Administrator list of the NetWorker server to allow this?
A.user=administrator,host=hostA
B.user=administrator,host=serverB
C.user=administrator,host=serverA
D.user=*,host=hostA

ANSWER : D

3.Which type of NetWorker backup generates the bootstrap save set?
A.Server-initiated
B.Client-initiated
C.Console-initiated
D.Storage-initiated
ANSWER : A

4.NetWorker is used to backup a Windows client. The client has an SQL database on it. The database administrator would like to use pre and post commands during the backup.
Which command needs to be in the Backup Command field of the client resource?
A.nsrsqlsv
B.savepnpc
C.savepsm
D.savefs

ANSWER : B

5.What must be done first when configuring a remote tape library using the NetWorker Administration window?
A.Scan the storage node for a list of all devices
B.Verify a storage node resource exists for the remote storage node
C.Verify the user doing the configuration is in the remote storage nodes Administrator list
D.Run inquire on the remote storage node to determine the path names of the tape devices

ANSWER : B

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1. What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don’t have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D

2. What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema’s tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE

3. The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students’ grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

4. In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE

5. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

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6. What is the primary role of support service?
A. To track problems and bugs
B. To provide quality assistance
C. To provide technical resolutions
D. To provide the customer with a knowledge-base
Answer: B

7. A customer calls you in a frantic state. The customer has a big presentation in an hour and cannot get the presentation to print. You ask questions about the problem, but the customer keeps talking about what will happen to her if she does not have the presentation ready. Which two actions should you take to get the customer’s attention? (Choose two.)
A. Empathise with the customer
B. Tell the customer to “snap out of it”
C. Regularly use the customer’s first name
D. Raise your voice when asking questions
Answer: AC

8. What are three reasons for providing consistent service? (Choose three.)
A. To guarantee professionalism
B. To instill confidence in your customer
C. To ensure a commitment to excellence
D. To ensure empathy to customer needs
Answer: ABC

9. What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?
A. Increases call volume
B. Saves time and money
C. Decreases network traffic
D. Requires lower maintenance
Answer: B

10. What should you do to assess a customer level of knowledge? What should you do to assess a customer? level of knowledge?
A. Ask open questions
B. Ask closed questions
C. Provide more detailed explanations
D. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledge
Answer: A

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1. An analyst has conveyed incorrect information to a customer. Which action demonstrates personal accountability?
A. The analyst has another analyst call the customer
B. The analyst closes the call and moves to the next call
C. The analyst calls the customer back to correct the information
D. The analyst calls the customer back and blames the incorrect information on bad documentation
Answer: C

2. For which two reasons do help desk’s log all calls? (Choose two.)
A. Allows ticket monitoring
B. Measure frequency of calls
C. Prove the help desk is right
D. Provide an audit trail of activities
Answer: BD

3. In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)
A. When your time is limited
B. When you need to build rapport
C. When you need the customer to elaborate
D. When you have exhausted your possibilities
Answer: BCD

4. Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?
A. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptable
B. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customer
C. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)
D. They determine what level of support the customer is receiving
Answer: B

5. A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by asking some simple questions. The customer admits that this is his first time using a computer Which three questions should be used to obtain necessary information to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this printer
B. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screen
C. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other applications
D. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the power is turned on
Answer: ACD

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6. Customers seem reluctant to engage with SLAs. What two arguments can you use to convince them to become involved?
(Choose 2)
A.SLAs will improve working relationships.
B.IT can always deliver what customers want.
C.IT will become more streamlined.
D.SLAs allow customers the opportunity to criticise IT.
E.IT can prioritise resources to address specific requirements.
Answer: AE

7. How would you measure the success of Problem Management?
(Choose 2)
A.A reduced number of incidents at the Service Desk.
B.Reduced cost per call.
C.A reduced number of changes.
D.A reduction in the time taken to resolve known errors.
Answer: AD

8. Is it correct to say that in reality the Configuration Management Database must be accurate and up to date?
(Choose 1)
A.Sometimes.
B.Always, where possible.
C.Always, without exception.
D.Only if the CIs are comprehensive.
Answer: B

9. What is the best description of self-healing tools?
(Choose 1)
A.Self-healing tools allow an analyst to control a customer desktop remotely.
B.Self-healing tools immediately dispatch an engineer when a customer makes a request.
C.Self-healing tools identify when a problem has occurred and automatically corrects it.
D.Self-healing tools remove the emotion from a support request.
Answer: C

10. What is the best explanation of strategic planning?
(Choose 1)
A.Medium-term projects that are necessary to enable realisation of the long term projects.
B.Development of corporate strategies for promotion of services.
C.A long-term vision of what an organisation needs to achieve in order to meet its objectives.
D.The detailed plan for achieving the objectives set by the strategic plan.
Answer: C

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1. Which three are required activities for a service desk manager when undertaking the financial management of the Service Desk?
(Choose 3)
A.Budgeting calculations.
B.Unit costs calculations and analysis.
C.Return on investment calculations.
D.Stocks and Bonds calculations.
E.Staffing policies and procedures.
Answer: ABC

2. You have recently implemented structured information gathering for some aspects of the support offered by your team. What is the best description of this method of acquiring information?
(Choose 1)
A.Asking the questions required to enable you to complete a task.
B.Asking questions in a predefined sequence and format.
C.Asking the questions that you have been told to ask.
D.Asking customers to use email when requesting assistance.
Answer: B

3. Which two of the following are key components of a marketing programme?
(Choose 2)
A.Identifying the key customers.
B.Defining the message and communicating to the relevant audience.
C.Targeting messages to all IT.
D.Communication to all stakeholders in a similar manner.
E.Planning and scheduling ongoing communication.
Answer: BE

4. What is the primary objective of customer satisfaction surveys?
(Choose 1)
A.Customer satisfaction surveys determine if the Service Desk is following the SLA.
B.Customer satisfaction surveys establish a basis for future pay rises.
C.Customer satisfaction surveys identify what customers feel is important.
D.Customer satisfaction surveys demonstrate to senior management that the Service Desk is in demand.
Answer: C

5. What is the best criterion to use when deciding the type of support to provide to a customer?
(Choose 1)
A.Key performance indicators.
B.The customers authority level.
C.The incidents impact on the business.
D.The support resources available.
Answer: C

1. SNTP is a protocol used to:

A. Replace NetBIOS

B. Synchronize time

C. Transfer mail

D. Register and resolve host names

Answer: B

2. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information in Windows 2000?

A. Global Catalog

B. Tree

C. Realm

D. Domain

Answer: A

 

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3. In _______, the concept of a read-only BDC is gone.

A. Legacy NT 4 domains

B. Active Services

C. SMTP

D. Active Directory

Answer: D

4. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information that holds an abbreviated listing of Active Directory Information?

A. Trees

B. Global Catalog

C. Enhanced DNS

D. Realms

Answer: B

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9. What is the key difference between Java and JavaScript?
A. Java is a more complicated scripting language, intended for senior developers.
B. Java is an object-oriented programming language, whereas JavaScript is an object-based scripting language.
C. JavaScript is a more complicated language, intended for senior developers.
D. JavaScript is an object-oriented programming language, whereas Java is an object-based scripting language.

Answer: B

10. According to the HTML 4.0 Recommendation, an HTML tag can consist of several items, all of which are contained within angle brackets (<and >).
The main instruction of an HTML tag is usually contained in which item?
A. Element
B. Attribute
C. Value
D. Code

Answer: A

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